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SUPER 20 UPPSC GK & GS Test 45
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SUPER 20 UPPSC GK & GS Test 45

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  • Question 1/20
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    The main seat (Peeth) of Varkari seet is situated at
    Solutions

    • Varkari sect is a religious movement within the bhakti movement.

    • The sect is associated with the states of Maharashtra and Karnataka.

    • The main seat (Peeth) of Varkari seet is situated at Pandharpur, Maharashtra.

    • They worship Vithoba which is believed to be an incarnation of lord Krishna.

    • Namdev, Tukaram, Dnyaneshwar, Chokhamela are the main teachers of the movement.

  • Question 2/20
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    Choose the correct chronological order of the following events:

    I. Lucknow Pact

    II. Formation of Swaraj Party

    III. Jallianwala Massacre

    IV. Death of Bal Gangadhar Tilak

    Select the answer from the following code:

    Solutions

    The correct chronological order of the given events is-

    I. Lucknow Pact (Dec. 1916)

    III. Jallianwala Massacre (13 April 1919)

    IV. Death of Bal Gangadhar Tilak (1 Aug. 1920)

    II. Formation of Swaraj Party (9 January 1923)

  • Question 3/20
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    At which of the following place, Harsha had summoned a Buddhist Assembly?
    Solutions

    Harsha summoned two Buddhist assemblies (643 CE), one at Kanauj and another at Prayag. The assembly at Kanauj was attended by 20 kings including Bhaskaravarman of Kamarupa. A golden statue of Buddha was consecrated in a monastery and a small statue of Buddha was brought out in a procession. The procession was attended by Harsha and other kings. Harsha convened another quinquennial assembly known as Mahamoksha Parishad at Prayag (at the confluence of the Ganges and Yamuna).

  • Question 4/20
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    Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason(R):

    Assertion (A): East India Association in London was organised by Dadabhai Naoroji.

    Reason (R): He wanted to influence the British public opinion.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    Solutions

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). The East India Association was established in London on 1 December 1866 by Dadabhai Naoroji. The purpose of the East India Association was to make the British public and Parliament aware of Indian subjects. The organization received the most support in the Bombay Presidency in India. On 22 May 1869, its branch was established in Bombay. Its president was Jamsetji Jeejeebhai and secretaries were Ferozeshah Mehta and H V M Wagle.

  • Question 5/20
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    Which of the following is the correct sequence of State of India in descending order in terms of reserves of coal?
    Solutions
    In view of the accumulated reserves of coal
  • Question 6/20
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    Choose the correct pair among the following:


    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    Solutions

    Important passes in South India are:

  • Question 7/20
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    Who had suggested that shifting Earth on its axis is one of the climatic change?
    Solutions
    Milutin Milankovic (28 May 1879 – 12December 1958) was a Serbian mathematician, astronomer, climatologist, geophysicist, civil engineer and popularizer of science. Milankovicgave two fundamental contributions to global science.
    The first contribution is the "Canon of the Earth’s Insolation", which characterizes the climates of all the planets of the Solar system. The second contribution is the explanation of Earth's long-term climate changes caused by changes in the position of the Earth in comparison to the Sun, now known as Milankovitch cycles.
  • Question 8/20
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    Which of the following are correctly matched?
    1) Article 31A: Saving of laws providing for acquisition of estates etc.
    2) Article 31B: Immunises any law included in the Ninth Schedule from all the fundamental rights.
    3) Article 31C: Gives effect to certain directive principles
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    Solutions
    Factual statements. Students remember the articles of fundamental rights however the exceptions to fundamental rights are ignored sometimes. Article 31A,B and C are exceptions to fundamental rights.
  • Question 9/20
    1 / -0.25
    Arrange the following events in a chronological order and select the correct answer from the codes given below :

    I. Maharaja Hari Singh signed the Instrument of Accession.

    II. Constitution of India was enforced.

    III. Accession to India ratified by the Sovereign Constituent Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir.

    IV. New Constitution of the State of Jammu and Kashmir came into force.

    Solutions

    The chronological order of the given events is-

    I. Maharaja Hari Singh signed the Instrument of Accession.

    II. Constitution of India was enforced.

    III. Accession to India ratified by the Sovereign Constituent Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir.

    IV. New Constitution of the State of Jammu and Kashmir came into force.

  • Question 10/20
    1 / -0.25
    Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R):

    Assertion [A]: ‘Union of India’ is a wider expression than the ‘Territory of India’. 

    Reason [R]: ‘Territory of India’ includes only states while ‘Union of India’ includes states, union territories and territories that may be acquired by the Government of India. 

    Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
    Solutions
    ‘Territory of India’ is a wider expression than the ‘Union of India’ because Union of India’ includes only states while Territory of India’ includes states, union territories and territories that may be acquired by the Government of India.
  • Question 11/20
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    Which of the following statements is/are correct about adrenaline?
    1) It is secreted by the adrenal glands.
    2) It is associated with fight-or-flight response.
    Select the answer using the code given below:
    Solutions
    • Epinephrine, also called adrenaline, hormone that is secreted mainly by the medulla of the adrenal glands and that functions primarily to increase cardiac output and to raise glucose levels in the blood.
    • Epinephrine typically is released during acute stress, and its stimulatory effects fortify and prepare an individual for either “fight or flight” (see fight-or-flight response).
  • Question 12/20
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    Which of the following is not a monocotyledon plant?
    Solutions
    Monocotyledons (Liliopsida) are a class of flowering plants, including more than 75 000 species. They are mostly herbaceous. The name of the class comes from the structure of the seeds, which have one cotyledon, with a terminal position.
    The seeds of Monocotyledons have a well-developed endosperm. It usually stores starch and proteins, necessary for the initial growth of the plant. The seed germination of the Monocotyledons is usually hypogeal. Examples of Monocots are Garlic, Onion, Nut, Palm, Coconut, Date, Wheat, Maize, Bamboo, Sugarcane, etc.
    Dicotyledons (Magnoliopsida) are a class of flowering plants, which includes more than 175 000 plant species – from annual plants to trees. The Dicotyledons are distinguished by the presence of two lateral cotyledons in each seed.
    In the cotyledons is stored starch, oils, or proteins that are used for the plant’s growth until it begins to photosynthesize. The seed germination of the Dicotyledons is hypogeal or epigeal. Examples of dicots are Radish, Turnip, Mustard, Lemon, Watermelon, Gourd, Bitter, etc.
  • Question 13/20
    1 / -0.25
    With reference to DNA, which of the following statements is/are correct?
    1) It can replicate.
    2) Nearly every cell in a person’s body has the same DNA.
    Select the answer using the code given below:
    Solutions
    • DNA, or deoxyribonucleic acid, is the hereditary material in humans and almost all other organisms. Nearly every cell in a person’s body has the same DNA. Most DNA is located in the cell nucleus (where it is called nuclear DNA), but a small amount of DNA can also be found in the mitochondria (where it is called mitochondrial DNA or mtDNA).
    • An important property of DNA is that it can replicate, or make copies of itself. Each strand of DNA in the double helix can serve as a pattern for duplicating the sequence of bases.
  • Question 14/20
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    In the following pairs of plants and their edible parts, which pair Is not correctly matched ?
    Solutions
    The part of the potato that is eaten is not a root, it is actually a specialized stem called a tuber.
  • Question 15/20
    1 / -0.25
    What is the full form of BMD test?
    Solutions
    Bone mineral density (BMD) test measures the amount of calcium in the bone by X-rays.


    A bone mineral density test uses X-rays to measure the amount of minerals — namely calcium — in your bones. This test is important for people who are at risk for osteoporosis, especially women and older adults.

    The test is also referred to as dual energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA). It’s an important test for osteoporosis, which is the most common type of bone disease. Osteoporosis causes your bone tissue to become thin and frail over time and leads to disabling fractures.
  • Question 16/20
    1 / -0.25
    ‘Triticale’ is a cross between which of the following?
    Solutions
    'Triticale' is a hybrid variety between wheat and rye. It is being used as a fodder for animals. This crop is also called Man Road Crop.
  • Question 17/20
    1 / -0.25
    Consider the following statement regarding the PM Garib Kalyan Sammelan-

    1) Minister's 'Garib Kalyan Sammelan' organized by the Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi, in Delhi on May 31, 2022

    2) The 11th installment of financial benefits under the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-Kisan) scheme has also been released by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi during the conference.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Solutions

    • Participated in the Prime Minister's 'Garib Kalyan Sammelan' organized by the Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi, in Shimla on May 31, 2022.

    • This unique public program is being organized across the country in State Capitals, District Headquarters and Krishi Vigyan Centers to mark the completion of eight years of the Government under the leadership of Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi.

    • Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Sammelan provides an opportunity for the elected public representatives across the country to interact directly with the public in an effort to get public opinion about various welfare programs run by the government.

    • The 11th instalment of financial benefits under the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-Kisan) scheme has also been released by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi during the conference.

    • During the conference, the Prime Minister interacted directly with the beneficiaries of various programs of the nine Ministries/Departments of the Government of India.

  • Question 18/20
    1 / -0.25
    Param Anant Supercomputing Facility has been set up under Phase 2 of the National Supercomputing Mission (NSM) in which of the following institute?
    Solutions

    • Param Anant Supercomputer has been installed at IIT Gandhinagar.

    • Param Anant Supercomputing Facility has been set up under Phase 2 of the National Supercomputing Mission (NSM).

    • The National Supercomputing Mission is a joint initiative run by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and the Department of Science and Technology (DST).

    • The PARAM Infinite supercomputer is equipped with an 838 teraflops supercomputing facility and is based on contact liquid cooling technology.

    • So far, 15 supercomputers with a total computing capacity of 24 petaflops have been installed across the country under the National Supercomputing Mission. All these supercomputers are manufactured in India and work on an indigenously developed software stack developed by the Center for Development in Advanced Computing (C-DAC).

  • Question 19/20
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    Which state government has constituted an expert committee headed by a retired Supreme Court (SC) judge to implement the Uniform Civil Code (UCC) and review all relevant laws?
    Solutions

    • An expert committee headed by a retired Supreme Court (SC) judge has been constituted by the Uttarakhand government to review all relevant laws governing the implementation of the Uniform Civil Code (UCC) and the personal affairs of the residents of Uttarakhand.

    • Uniform Civil Code also provides for uniformity in-laws like marriage, divorce, inheritance, and adoption for all religious communities (Hindu, Muslim, Sikh, Christian) along with uniform law for the whole country.

    • Article 44 of the Directive Principles of Policy of the Constitution of India states that the State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.

    • Uniform civil code is followed by India in almost all civil matters, such as the Indian Contract Act, 1972, Civil Procedure Code, Sale of Goods Act, Transfer of Property Act, 1882, Partnership Act 1932, Evidence Act 1872 etc.

    • At present Goa is the only state which has implemented Uniform Civil Code in the state.

  • Question 20/20
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    Which of the following district of Uttar Pradesh Touch the boundary of Chhatisgarh and Jharkhand both states?
    Solutions

    • Districts of Uttar Pradesh touching the boundary of Chhattisgarh state is Only Sonbhadra.

    • The name of the district of Uttar Pradesh touching the boundary of Jharkhand state is Only Sonbhadra.

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